Sample Exam Questions

Domain III Pharmaceuticals and Radiopharmaceuticals
1. What is the fraction of the total radioactivity in the form of the desired radionuclide present in a radiopharmaceutical called?
  1. Aluminum Contamination
  2. Molybdenum breakthrough
  3. Radionuclidic purity
  4. Radiochemical purity
  5. Chemical purity
Domain V Clinical Procedures
2. The use of elliptical and/or body contour orbits in SPECT imaging should result in improved:
  1. Temporal resolution
  2. Spatial resolution
  3. Reconstruction times
  4. Acquisition times
  5. Patient comfort
Domain IV Instrumentation Operation and QC
3. Full width at half maximum (FWHM) is often used as a measure of:
  1. Uniformity
  2. Sensitivity
  3. Intensity
  4. Resolution
  5. Dead time
Domain V Clinical Procedures
4. Uncorrected flood field nonuniformities cause ____________ artifacts in tomographic reconstruction.
  1. Irregular
  2. Dropout
  3. Circular
  4. Undulating
  5. Linear
Domain V Clinical Procedures
5. What are areas of prolonged retention of Xe-133 in the lungs associated with?
  1. Reduced trapping in the lung
  2. Obstructive lung disease
  3. Pulmonary emboli
  4. Bacterial pneumonia
  5. Extended equilibrium phase
Domain V Clinical Procedures
6. Which of the following myocardial perfusion patterns suggest that the patient has myocardial ischemia?
  1. Normal resting Tc-MIBI, Abnormal Stress Tc-MIBI
  2. Abnormal resting Tc-MIBI, Normal Stress Tl-201
  3. Normal resting Tc-MIBI, Normal Stress Tl-201
  4. Abnormal resting Tl-201, Abnormal Stress Tc-MIBI
  5. Abnormal resting Tl-201, Abnormal Stress Tl-201
Domain V Clinical Procedures
7. Ventricular depolarization occurs just before the ventricles contract, expelling blood forward into the pulmonary artery and aorta. What represents this action on the EKG strip?
  1. PVC's
  2. Bundle Branch Block
  3. QRS complex
  4. Atrial Fibrillation
  5. SVT
Domain II Radiation Safety and Regulations
8. At what distance is the exposure rate (in mR/hr) indicated by a package's transport index measured?
  1. At the surface
  2. At 1 meter from the surface
  3. At 3 meters from the surface
  4. At 6 meters from the surface
  5. Transport index doesn't have anything to do with exposure, all packages, radioactive or not, have a T.I.
Domain II Radiation Safety and Regulations
9. According to NRC, an unrestricted area is one in which a person would receive a radiation dose of less than:
  1. 2 mrem/hr
  2. 5 mrem/hr
  3. 10 mrem/hr
  4. 20 mrem/hr
  5. 50 mrem/hr
Domain II Radiation Safety and Regulations
10. The dose rate during preparation of a radiopharmaceutical is 1.66 mrem/hr. With this rate reduced by 2 HVLs, how many hours would it take a worker to accumulate 10 mrems?
  1. 3
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 24
  5. 48
Domain V Clinical Procedures
11. In a euthyroid patient, which of the following describes the result of a patient receiving a CT scan with IV contrast 8 days prior to a radioactive iodine thyroid uptake?
  1. Enhanced uptake in "hot" nodules
  2. Suppressed "cold" nodules
  3. Increased thyroid uptake
  4. Decreased thyroid uptake
  5. No variation in uptake
Domain I Radiation Physics and Detection
12. If a vial containing Tl-201 is found to have an activity of 10.0 mCi at 8 a.m. on Monday, how much activity would remain at 10 a.m. on Friday provided no dose was drawn from this vial (in mCi)?
  1. 86.5
  2. 4.03
  3. 3.94
  4. 3.10
  5. 2.55
Domain II Radiation Safety and Regulations
13. High Radiation Area signs are to be posted in areas where exposures greater than ____________ mrem/hr are measured at 30 cm from the source or from any surface through which the radiation penetrates:
  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 50
  4. 100
  5. 500
Domain IV Instrumentation Operation and QC
14. Which of the following quality control tests should be performed on a dose calibrator after a power outage?
  1. Nothing needs to be checked if QC was performed in the last 24 hours
  2. Constancy
  3. Linearity
  4. Geometry
  5. Sensitivity
Domain V Clinical Procedures
15. When processing a gated blood pool study, incorrectly placing the background region over part of the aorta will have what effect on the resulting EF calculation?
  1. The result will be higher than patient's true EF
  2. The result will be lower than patient's true EF
  3. It will have no effect; the background in the region of the aorta is insignificant
  4. It will have no effect: the background data is only used to smooth the resulting volume curve
  5. It depends; the effect is different depending on whether the patient's heart function is abnormal or normal to begin with
Domain III Pharmaceuticals and Radiopharmaceuticals
16. When labeling leukocytes with In-111 oxine, what is the next step in the procedure after blood has been drawn in a syringe containing an anticoagulant?
  1. Centrifuge the sample at 200 g. for 5 minutes
  2. Remove red blood cells
  3. Allow 50 to 60 minutes for the blood sample to sediment
  4. Add the In-111 oxine
  5. Add ascorbic acid
Domain III Pharmaceuticals and Radiopharmaceuticals
17. The limit for administered Mo-99 contamination in a solution of Tc-99m is no more than:
  1. 1 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
  2. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
  3. 5 uCi Mo-99 per mCi Tc-99m
  4. 0.15 uCi Mo-99 per ml Tc-99m solution
  5. 5 uCi Mo-99 per ml Tc-99m solution
Domain V Clinical Procedures
18. What is the most likely cause of activity seen in the liver and spleen during a perfusion lung scan?
  1. Normal physiology and biodistribution
  2. Left-to-right cardiac shunt
  3. Dissociation and oxidation to free pertechnetate
  4. COPD
  5. MAA particles smaller than 5 microns
Domain IV Instrumentation Operation and QC
19. According to national standards, how often should the activity linearity of a dose calibrator be measured?
  1. Each day of use
  2. Weekly
  3. Monthly
  4. Quarterly
  5. Annually
Domain V Clinical Procedures
20. Which of the following situations would be considered an absolute contraindication for performing Regadenoson pharmacological stress testing?
  1. Patient drank a couple cups of caffeinated coffee 2 hours prior
  2. Patient ate a solid meal 2 hours prior
  3. Patient had a PET scan 1 week prior
  4. Patient had a known myocardial infarction 6 months previously
  5. Patient has a history of COPD

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